Maybe it's just me, but hearing man call someone a "son of a perverse and rebellious woman" sounds quite similar to calling him "a son of a b****".
And when he says, "and unto the confusion of thy mother's nakedness?", It sounds to me like he' might be calling him a "Mother F'er".
Okay, I see. I didn't understand what you were saying at first, and that leaves an interesting discussion to be had. I do not believe that's what was happening in 1Sa 20:30. Now certainly, Saul was angry David got away, but the comments he was making were a bit more complex than that, and I'm not sure I can fully explain it off the top of my head, only because the intrigue between these men is something I don't readily study, because I focus myself more on doctrine than politics, but this was more of a political/family matter.
Then Saul's anger was kindled against Jonathan, and he said unto him, Thou son of the perverse rebellious woman, do not I know that thou hast chosen the son of Jesse to thine own confusion, and unto the confusion of thy mother's nakedness?
-1Sa 20:30Jonathan was Saul's son, and so that context is key here because if Saul is king, that means Jonathan would in line for the throne. However, Jonathan saw no wrong in David, and tried to reason with his father. Saul got angry and blamed his son's rebelliousness on his mother, as if to say, "You got your rebellious nature from your mother," even though Saul was rebellious against God in hypocrisy.
The "
confusion of thy mother's nakedness" is not to be taken that Saul was accusing his own son of having sex with his mother, and that type of language and accusation is not something seen between father and son unless such a deed had actually been done (like how Reuben had sex with Jacob's wife in Genesis; can't imagine how that conversation would have played out, but it doesn't say). Rather, this is prefaced by Saul saying "
thou hast chosen the son of Jesse to thine own confusion," which is key because Saul's referring to the fact that Jonathan is choosing another man's son as the heir to the throne, and thus, Saul is trying to tug at his son's heart strings by abusing his love for his mother, trying to explain to him that people will begin to talk, and suspect that Saul's wife had committed adultery in an affair and that Jonathan was a bastard child, not a true son of Saul.
It was the political view of the public, which would begin a rumor about Jonathan's mother's infidelity, which he feared would be started because Jonathan was not supportive of Saul's throne by helping and protecting David.
Does that help clear up the confusion on this? I don't think this was just a simple matter of railing by calling someone an MF bomb.